Test for the course of inorganic chemistry. Alternative tests in inorganic chemistry. X. Group and period
Final test for inorganic chemistry
The final test contains tasks on the main topics of the school chemistry course: "The structure of the atom", " Periodic law and the periodic system of chemical elements D.I. Mendeleev "," The structure of matter "," Chemical reactions "," The basic laws of the course of chemical reactions "," Solutions. Theory electrolytic dissociation"," Redox reactions "," Classification of substances "," The main classes of inorganic and organic compounds. "
Tasks are estimated at 1 point. The maximum amount of points is 20.
Points received for correctly completed tasks are converted to traditional marks on a scale:
"5" - 18-20 points,
"4" - 15-17 points,
"3" - 12-14 points,
"2" - 11 points or less.
option 1
A1. The number of electrons contained in a carbon atom is equal to: 1) 6; 2) 12; 3) 8
A2. The electronic formula of the atom is 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 2. Chemical sign of this item: 1) C; 2) O; 3) Si
A3. The radii of atoms of chemical elements in the series: chlorine, phosphorus, aluminum, sodium: 1) increase; 2) decrease; 3) do not change.
A4. Chemical bond in a water molecule: 1) ionic; 2) covalent polar; 3) covalent non-polar.
A5. Formulas acid oxides: 1) CO 2 and CaO; 2) CO 2 and SO 3; 3) K 2 O and Al 2 O 3
A6. Formula hydrogen sulfide acid: 1) H 2 S; 2) H 2 SO 4; 3) H 2 SO 3
A7. Exchange reactions include:
1) CaO + H 2 O Ca (OH) 2 ; 2) WITH u (OH) 2 CuO + H 2 O; 3) KOH + HNO 3 KNO 3 + H 2 O
A8. Electrolytes, during the dissociation of which metal cations are formed, and anions of the acid residue are called: 1) acids; 2) salts; 3) grounds.
A9. Abbreviated ionic reaction equation H+ + OH - H 2 О corresponds to the interaction in solution: 1) potassium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid; 2) copper hydroxide (II) and hydrochloric acid; 3) copper hydroxide (II) and silicic acid
A10. The precipitate is formed by the interaction in a solution of iron (II) chloride and: 1) hydrochloric acid; 2) potassium hydroxide; 3) copper (II) nitrate.
A11. The presence of acid in the solution can be proved using: 1) litmus; 2) phenolphthalein; 3) alkalis.
A12. The coefficient in front of the reducing agent formula in the equation for the reaction of aluminum with oxygen is: 1) 5; 2) 8; 3) 4.
A13. The dissolution of chalk in hydrochloric acid will slow down with: 1) an increase in the acid concentration; 2) grinding chalk; 3) acid dilution.
A14. Chemical equilibrium in the system FeO (t) + H 2 (g)<==>Fe (t) + H 2 O (l) + Q will shift towards the formation of reaction products with: 1) increasing pressure; 2) an increase in temperature; 3) decrease in pressure.
A15. A solution of hydrochloric acid cannot interact: 1) with sodium hydroxide; 2) with carbon dioxide; 3) with calcium.
A16. Sulfur oxide (IV) reacts: 1) with water; 2) with carbonic acid; 3) with calcium.
A17. Phosphoric acid does not react: 1) with potassium hydroxide; 2) with magnesium; 3) with hydrogen.
A18. Carbonic acid reacts: 1) with calcium oxide; 2) with sodium nitrate; 3) with silicon oxide (IV)
A19. The sum of all the coefficients in the equation for the reaction of calcium with phosphoric acid is: 1) 5; 2) 7; 3) 9.
A20. After evaporation of 40 g of solution to dryness, 10 g of salt remained. The mass fraction of salt in the initial solution was equal to: 1) 5%, 2) 15%; 3) 25%.
option 2
A1. The number of neutrons contained in the oxygen atom is equal to: 1) 6; 2) 12; 3) 8.
A2. The formula of the higher oxide of the element, the electronic formula of which is 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 3: 1) N 2 O 5; 2) P 2 O 5; 3) B 2 O 3.
A3. The most pronounced non-metallic properties are shown by: 1) phosphorus; 2) sulfur; 3) silicon.
A4. Formula of a substance with a covalent polar bond: 1) H 2 O; 2) O 2; 3) CaCl 2
A5. The formula for the base and acid, respectively: 1) Ca (OH) 2 and Be (OH) 2;
2) NaOH and KHSO 4; 3) Al (OH) 3 and HNO 3
A6. Sodium sulfite formula: 1) Na 2 SO 4; 2) Na 2 SO 3; 3) Na 2 S
A7. Substitution reactions include: 1)Ca + H 2 SO 4 CaSO 4 + H 2 ;
2) WITH u (OH) 2 CuO + H 2 O; 3) KOH + HNO 3 KNO 3 + H 2 O
A8. Electrolytes, during the dissociation of which metal cations and hydroxide ions are formed, are called: 1) salts; 2) acids; 3) grounds.
A9. Abbreviated ionic reaction equationBa 2+ + SO 4 2- BaSO 4 corresponds to the interaction in solution: 1) barium carbonate and sodium sulfate; 2) barium nitrate and sulfuric acid; 3) barium hydroxide and sulfur oxide (VI).
A10. Water is formed by interaction in a solution of hydrochloric acid and: 1) calcium hydroxide; 2) calcium; 3) calcium silicate.
A11. The presence of alkali in the solution can be proved using: 1) litmus; 2) phenolphthalein; 3) acids.
A12. The coefficient in front of the oxidizer formula in the equation for the reaction of aluminum with sulfur is: 1) 8; 2) 2; 3) 3.
A13. The dissolution of zinc in hydrochloric acid will accelerate with: 1) an increase in the acid concentration; 2) when cooling the reagents; 3) when adding water.
A14. Chemical equilibrium in the system CO 2 (g) + C (t)<==>2 CO (g) - Q will shift towards the formation of the reaction product with: 1) increasing pressure; 2) an increase in temperature; 3) lowering the temperature
A15. A solution of hydrochloric acid can interact: 1) with copper; 2) with carbon dioxide; 3) with magnesium.
A16. Sulphuric acid reacts: 1) with water; 2) with calcium oxide; 3) with carbon dioxide.
A17. Phosphorus (V) oxide does not react: 1) with copper (II) hydroxide; 2) with water; 3) with potassium hydroxide.
A18. Silicic acid is formed by the interaction of: 1) silicon with water; 2) silicon oxide (IV) with water; 3) sodium silicate with hydrochloric acid.
A19. In the equation of the reaction of iron with chlorine with the formation of iron (III) chloride, the coefficient in front of the salt formula is: 1) 1; 2) 2; 3) 3.
A20. 20 grams of salt was dissolved in 30 grams of water. The mass fraction of salt in the solution is equal to: 1) 40%; 2) 50%; 3) 60%.
option 3
A1. The number of protons contained in the nitrogen atom is: 1) 14; 2) 7; 3) 5.
A2. Electronic formula of the external energy level carbon atom:
1) 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2; 2) 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 2; 3) 2s 2 2p 2.
A3. The most pronounced metallic properties are shown by: 1) magnesium;
2) calcium; 3) barium.
A4. Chemical bond in the oxygen molecule: 1) ionic; 2) covalent polar;
3) covalent non-polar.
A5. Formulas of basic oxides: 1) CO 2 and SO 3; 2) K 2 O and CaO; 3) CO 2 and Al 2 O 3.
A6. Formula of iron (III) hydroxide: 1) Fe (OH) 2; 2) Fe (OH) 3; 3) Fe 2 O 3.
A7. Compound reactions include: 1)KOH + HNO 3 KNO 3 + H 2 O;
2) WITH u (OH) 2 CuO + H 2 O; 3) CaO + H 2 O Ca (OH) 2
A8. During the dissociation of a substance in an aqueous solution, ions K +, H + and CO 3 2- were formed. This substance is: 1) sour salt; 2) medium salt; 3) with alkali.
A9. Abbreviated ionic reaction equation 2H + + SiO 3 2- H 2 SiO 3 corresponds to the interaction in solution: 1) carbonic acid and aluminum silicate; 2) hydrochloric acid and potassium silicate; 3) silicic acid and calcium carbonate.
A10. Gas is formed by interaction in a solution of sulfuric acid and:
1) zinc; 2) zinc oxide; 3) zinc hydroxide
A11. The presence of carbon dioxide can be proven using: 1) phenolphthalein;
2) lime water; 3) hydrochloric acid.
A12. The coefficient before the formula of the reducing agent in the equation for the reaction of aluminum with sulfuric acid is: 1) 4; 2) 6; 3) 2.
A13. The dissolution of magnesium in hydrochloric acid will accelerate when:
1) adding a catalyst; 2) adding water; 3) adding an inhibitor.
A14. Chemical equilibrium in system 2SO 2 (d) + O 2 (d) 2 SO 3 (d) + Qwill shift towards the formation of the reaction product at: 1) an increase in temperature; 2) lowering the temperature; 3) decrease in pressure.
A15. A solution of hydrochloric acid can interact with: 1) sulfuric acid; 2) carbon monoxide; 3) sodium.
A16. Sulfur oxide (VI) reacts with: 1) hydrogen; 2) potassium hydroxide; 3) nitrogen.
A17. Nitric acid reacts with: 1) nitrogen; 2) water; 3) sodium.
A18. When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, the following occurs: 1) turbidity of the solution; 2) gas formation; 3) color change.
A19. The sum of all the coefficients in the equation for the reaction of potassium with water is: 1) 3; 2) 5; 3) 7.
A20. To prepare 400 grams of a 2% salt solution, you need to take salt, the mass of which is: 1) 6 g; 2) 8 g 3) 10 g
ANSWERS
option 1
option 2
option 3
A1
A2
A3
A4
A5
A6
A7
A8
A9
A10
A11
A12
A13
A14
A15
A16
A17
A18
A19
A20
List of used literature
Gabrielyan O.S. Chemistry: textbook. for stud. prof. study. institutions / O.S. Gabrielyan, I. G. Ostroumov. - M., 2005.
Gabrielyan O.S. Chemistry in tests, tasks, exercises: textbook. manual for stud. wednesday prof. educational institutions/ O.S. Gabrielyan, G.G. Lysova - M., 2006.
Erokhin Yu.M., Frolov V.I. Collection of tasks and exercises in chemistry (with didactic material): textbook. manual for students average. prof. head - M., 2004.
PERM STATE PHARMACEUTICAL ACADEMY
DEPARTMENT OF INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
GENERAL AND INORGANIC CHEMISTRY TESTS
for self-control and preparation for exams
(intended for 1st year students
faculties of full-time and part-time studies)
Perm - 2004
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The tests were compiled by a team of teachers of the Department of Inorganic Chemistry: Head of the Department, Associate Professor M. Gaysinovich, Associate Professor T. I. Beresneva, Senior Teacher I. Fedorova, assistants G. I. Gushchina, L. A. Grebenyuk.
Reviewer - Associate Professor of the Department of Physical and Colloidal Chemistry, T.E. Ryumina
Responsible for the release -
Vice-rector for educational work Professor K.D. Potemkin
INTRODUCTION
General and inorganic chemistry in pharmaceutical universities is a basic subject that largely determines the successful development of other chemical and special disciplines.
The most important task of training is to provide a reliable and effective methodology for monitoring and self-monitoring the quality of assimilation of the material by the trainee. Along with the control methods traditionally used in chemistry (current survey, independent and test papers, oral and written exams), tests are increasingly used, i.e. standardized, usually time-limited tests to test knowledge, skills and abilities.
The undoubted advantage of the test method is its efficiency, which allows both the teacher and the student to make adjustments to the learning process. The benefits of tests multiply increases only if the work on them forces not only to reproduce the reported information, but also to actively generalize, process, stimulate logical thinking... Therefore, working with tests should by no means turn into a guessing game.
The tests are structured in a uniform way: for each question, four possible answers are offered, among which only one is correct (or the most complete). When starting to work on tests, first study the relevant material from textbooks, lecture notes, laboratory journal. Use the necessary reference materials: periodic table elements, table of solubility, reduction potentials, electronegativity of elements, dissociation constants of electrolytes.
The structure of the atom. Periodic law. Chemical bond.
1. In what expressions are we talking about a simple substance oxygen, and not about a chemical element?
a) oxygen is part of the water;
b) oxygen is poorly soluble in water:
c) in copper oxide, the mass fraction of oxygen is 20%;
d) oxygen is part of all vital organic matter.
2. In what expressions are we talking about the chemical element chlorine, and not about a simple substance?
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d) relative electronegativity.
79. What properties of atoms of elements decrease when moving from left to right along the period?
c) radius; d) the number of valence electrons.
80. What properties of atoms of elements increase when moving from left to right along the period?
a) radius; b) metallic properties;
c) the number of energy levels; d) relative electronegative
81. What properties of atoms of elements increase when moving from top to bottom along the main subgroup?
a) ionization energy; b) the energy of affinity for the electron;
c) the radius of the atom; d) relative electronegative
82. What properties of atoms of elements increase when moving from top to bottom in a group?
a) ionization energy; b) the number of valence electrons;
c) radius; d) the highest oxidation state.
83. What properties of atoms of elements decrease when moving from top to bottom in a group?
a) radius; b) non-metallic properties;
c) the number of valence electrons; d) the highest oxidation state.
84. What atomic parameters are periodically dependent on the charge of the nucleus?
a) the number of electrons in the atom; b) the mass of the atom;
c) radius; d) the number of energy levels.
85. What atomic parameters are periodically dependent on the charge of the nucleus?
a) the number of neutrons; b) the number of atomic orbitals;
c) the mass of the atom; d) ionization energy.
86. What atomic parameters are periodically dependent on the charge of the nucleus?
a) relative electronegativity;
b) the number of energy levels;
c) the total number of electrons;
d) the number of protons.
87. What atomic parameters are periodically dependent on the charge of the nucleus?
a) the mass of the atom; b) the energy of affinity for the electron;
c) the number of energy levels; d) the total number of electrons.
88. Indicate the physical meaning of the period number:
a) shows the number of energy levels in the atom;
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b) equal to the number of valence electrons;
c) is equal to the number of electrons at the external energy level;
d) is equal to the total number of electrons in the atom.
89. In which case is the nature of the change in the group of the atomic radius (r), ionization potential (I), electron affinity energy (E), electronegativity (EO) indicated correctly:
a) all these parameters increase;
b) r - increases, I, E, EO - decreases;
c) r - decreases, I, E, EO - increases;
d) all these parameters decrease.
90. Atoms of elements having the same number of valence electrons are located:
a) in one group in a side subgroup periodic system;
c) in one group, the main subgroup of the periodic system;
d) in one group of the periodic system.
91. Knowing the number of the period in which the element is located, it is possible to predict for it:
a) the total number of electrons in the atom;
b) the number of energy levels in the atom;
c) the total number of electrons in the atom;
d) the formula of the higher oxide of the element.
92. Knowing the number of the group in which the element of the main subgroup is located, one can predict for it:
a) the number of energy levels in the atom;
b) the number of valence electrons;
c) the total number of electrons;
d) the charge of the nucleus.
93. In what part of the periodic table are the elements with the highest electronegativity located?
a) bottom left; b) top right; c) bottom right; d) top left.
94. The energy indicated in the equation:
Cl (r) Cl (r) + + 1е - 1254 kJ is for the chlorine atom:
a) the energy of the chemical bond; b) electron affinity;
c) electronegativity; d) ionization energy.
95. In which part of the periodic table are the elements with the largest atomic radius?
a) top left; b) at the bottom right; c) bottom left; d) top right.
96. In which series of elements is the increase in the radius of atoms:
a) Si, Al, Mg, Na; b) N, O, F, Ne;
c) Al, Si, P, S; d) Sr, Ca, Mg, Be.
97. In which series of elements is the increase in the relative electronegativity of atoms:
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a) Mg, Ca, Cr, Ba; b) O, S, Se, Te;
c) B, Al, Ga, In; d) B, C, N, O.
98. In which series of elements there is a decrease in the relative electronegativity of atoms:
a) Sn Ge Si C; b) I Br Cl F;
c) Mg Ca Sr Ba; d) Te Se S O.
99. In which series of elements does the ionization energy of atoms increase:
a) Bi Sb As P; b) Cl S P Si;
c) O S Se Te; d) Si Al Mg Na.
100. Chemical element(E) is in the 5th period, the formula of its volatile hydrogen compound is EN 3. Name the element.
a) In; b) Sb; c) Nb; d) V.
101. The hydrogen compound of some non-metal has the formula EN 4. What is the formula for its higher oxide?
a) E 2 O; b) EO; c) EO 4; d) EO 2.
102. The element is in the 4th period. Its higher oxide has the formula EO 3, and the volatile hydrogen compound EN 2. What an element it is.
a) Cr; b) Se; c) Ni; d) Ge /
103. The hydrogen compound of some non-metal has the formula EN 3. What is the formula for its higher oxide?
a) E 2 O 5; b) E 2 O 3; c) EO 2; d) EO 3.
104. The element is located in the 5th period. Its higher oxide has the formula E 2 O 7. The element does not form a volatile hydrogen compound. What element is it?
a) Nb; b) Sb; c) I; d Tc.
105. The higher oxide of some non-metal has the formula E 2 O 7. What is the formula for its hydrogen compound?
a) EN; b) EN 7; c) EN 2; d) EN 3.
106. What is the formula of the highest oxide of the element of the third period in the atom of which there are three unpaired electrons in the ground state?
a) E 2 O 3; b) EO 2; c) E 2 O 5; d) E 2 O 7.
107. The formula of the higher oxygen-containing acid formed by some element, H 3 EO 4. What configuration of valence electrons can this element have in the ground state?
a) 3s 2 3p 4; b) 3d 4 4s 2; c) 5s 2 5p 3; d) 3d 2 4s 2.
108. Formula of the higher oxide of the element E 2 O 5. Indicate the formula for the electronic configuration of the valence electrons of an atom of an element:
a) ns 2 np 1; b) ns 2 np 3; c) ns 2 np 4; d) ns 2 np 2.
109. Types of chemical bonds in the compound Na 2 SO 4:
a) ionic and covalent polar;
b) ionic and covalent non-polar;
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c) covalent non-polar and hydrogen;
d) covalent polar and hydrogen.
110. How many electrons are involved in the formation of chemical bonds in the N 2 molecule:
a) 4; b) 2; at 10; d) 6.
111. How many electrons are involved in the formation of chemical bonds in the C 2 H 6 molecule?
a) 14; b) 8; at 12; d) 10.
112. Maximum fraction of ionic bond in a molecule:
a) MgCl 2; b) CaCl 2; c) SrCl 2; d) BaCl 2.
113. Max Share covalent bond in a molecule:
a) H 2 S; b) AlH 3; c) NaH; d) PH 3.
114. Choose a pair of molecules, all bonds in which are ionic:
a) NaCl, Cs 2 O; b) CO 2, CaF 2; c) PCl 5, KI; d) CHCL 3, N 2 O 3.
115. Indicate the formula of a molecule in which all bonds are of the -type:
a) SO 2; b) H 2 O 2; c) CO 2; d) NOCl.
116. Indicate the formula of a molecule in which all bonds are of the -type:
a) there can be no such molecules; b) SO 3;
c) Cl 2 O 7; d) N 2.
117. Indicate the formula of a molecule in which all bonds are of the -type:
a) SO 3; b) PCl 5; c) NOCl; d) SOCl 2.
118. Indicate the formula of a molecule, in which the same number of - and -bonds:
a) POCl 3; b) CO 2; c) CCl 4; d) H 2.
119. Indicate the formula of a molecule in which the number of -bonds is twice more numbers-ties:
a) there cannot be such a molecule; b) HCN;
c) COCl 2; d) N 2.
120. The electronic formula mn: corresponds to the structure of the molecule:
a) SO 2; b) NO 2; c) CO 2; d) H 2 O.
121. Which of the following molecules has two lone pairs of valence electrons?
a) NH 3; b) CH 4; c) H 2 O; d) H 2.
122. An ammonia molecule and an ammonium ion differ from each other:
a) the oxidation state of the nitrogen atom; b) the total number of electrons;
c) the total number of protons; d) the charge of the nucleus of the nitrogen atom.
123. Indicate the formula of a molecule with an unpaired electron:
a) NO; b) CO; c) ZnO; d) MgO.
124. How many electrons are involved in the formation of chemical bonds in the C 2 H 6 molecule:
a) 7; b) 14; at 8; d) 6.
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125. How many electrons are involved in the formation of chemical bonds in the PCl 5 molecule:
a) 12; b) 5; at 6; d) 10.
126. Choose a pair of molecules, all bonds in which are covalent:
a) NH 4 CL, NO; b) CaS, HCl; c) P 2 O 5, CCL 4; d) CaBr 2, LiI.
127. Choose a pair of molecules, one of which is covalent and the other is ionic:
a) CsF, BaF 2; b) BCL 3, BaO; c) SCl 4, SiH 4; d) K 2 O, MgS.
128.With what particle can an ammonia molecule form chemical bond by donor-acceptor mechanism:
a) H +; b) CH 4; c) H 2; d) H -.
129. The donor of an electronic pair is:
a) NH 3; b) BH 3; c) NH 4 +; d) CH 4.
130. An acceptor of an electronic pair is:
a) BF 3; b) NH 4 +; c) BF 4 -; d) NH 3.
131. Which statement is wrong:
a) a single bond is always -type;
b) double and triple bonds always include -bond;
c) the greater the multiplicity of the bond, the less strong it is;
d) the higher the multiplicity of the bond, the shorter its length.
132. Indicate the position that contradicts the theory of hybridization:
a) the total number of orbitals before and after hybridization does not change;
b) hybrid orbitals have different energies;
c) all hybrid orbitals have the same shape;
d) in the process of hybridization, the spatial orientation of the orbitals changes.
133. The phosphorus atom in the PCl 3 molecule is in sp 3 -hybridization. One-electron clouds and a lone electron pair take part in hybridization. What shape does the molecule have?
a) tetrahedral; b) pyramidal; c) linear; d) angular.
134. The sulfur atom in the SOCl 2 molecule is in sp 3 -hybridization. One-electron clouds and a lone electron pair take part in hybridization. What shape does the molecule have?
a) pyramidal; b) tetrahedral; c) corner; d) linear.
135. The oxygen atom in the water molecule is in sp 3 -hybridization. One-electron clouds and two lone electron pairs take part in hybridization. What shape does the molecule have?
a) pyramidal; b) tetrahedral; c) linear; d) angular.
136. The carbon atom in the HCN molecule is in sp-hybridization. Only single-electron clouds take part in hybridization. What shape does the molecule have?
a) corner; b) pyramidal; c) linear; d) tetrahedral.
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137. A non-polar molecule is:
a) tetrahedral CCl 4; b) pyramidal NH 3;
c) angular H 2 Se; d) linear HCl.
138. In which of the molecules is the element-carbon-element angle is the smallest:
a) CO 2; b) COCl 2; c) CCL 4; d) HCN.
139. In which row are all three molecules polar:
a) CO 2, COCl 2, NH 3; b) CCl 4, CHCl 3, N 2 O;
c) BCl 3, SO 2, SO 3; d) NH 3, SO 2, H 2 O.
140. The dipole moment is equal to zero in the molecule:
a) H 2 O (angular); b) SO 2 (angular);
c) CO 2 (linear); d) NH 3 (pyramidal).
141. Based on the nature of molecular bonds, establish in which row the boiling point of substances increases:
a) BaCl 2 - HF - He; b) He - BaCl 2 - HF;
c) HF - He - BaCl 2; d) He - HF - BaCl 2.
142. In the series of hydrogen halides HF HCl HBr HI
abnormally high temp. bp, about C 19.5 -85.1 -66.8 -35.4
HF explains:
a) small molecule size;
b) the presence of hydrogen bonds between molecules;
c) high polarity of the molecule;
d) high chemical activity of the molecule.
143. A number of substances: potassium nitrate, silicon, iodine - corresponds to the sequence of names of types of crystal lattices:
a) ionic, metallic, atomic;
b) ionic, molecular, molecular;
c) ionic, atomic, molecular;
d) ionic, atomic, atomic.
144. The term "molecule" cannot be used to characterize the structure in a solid state:
a) phosphorus (V) chloride 1; b) barium oxide;
c) sulfur; d) carbon dioxide.
145. What particles are in the nodes of the crystal lattice of iodine?
a) atoms 1 o; b) ions I + and I -;
c) molecules I 2; d) ions I + and free electrons.
146. What particles are in the nodes of the crystal lattice of calcium oxide?
a) Ca and O atoms; b) ions Ca 2+ and O 2-;
c) CaO molecules; d) Ca 2+ ions and O 2 molecules.
147. The element with which electronic configuration of the atom forms a crystal lattice of the metal type:
a) 3s 2 3p 2; b) 1s 1; c) 3s 2 3p 6 3d 5 4s 1; d) 1s 2.
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148. The absence of electrical conductivity in the solid state is possessed by a simple substance, the atoms of which have an electronic formula:
a) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 4; b) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 3d 9 4s 1;
c) 1s 2 2s 2; d) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 3d 7 4s 2.
149. What property is not typical for substances with a molecular crystal lattice:
a) in the solid state they are insulators;
b) have high melting points;
c) have low hardness;
d) in the dissolved state, as a rule, they do not conduct current.
150. What property is not typical for substances with an atomic crystal lattice:
a) high hardness; b) heat melting;
c) good electrical conductivity; d) low volatility.
151. The atomic crystal lattice is formed by atoms, the electronic formula of which is:
a) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 4; b) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 3d 8 4s 2;
c) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 2; d) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 1.
152. Substances with ... .. crystal lattice have high hardness, brittleness, high melting point, lack of electrical conductivity.
a) atomic; b) molecular; c) metal; d) ionic.
153. What property is not typical for substances with an ionic crystal lattice:
a) good solubility in polar solvents;
b) high melting point;
c) fragility;
d) good electrical conductivity in the solid state.
Option number 1
PART A
Choose the correct answer.
A1. Only complex substances are in the series:
1) iron and hydrogen chloride, 2) copper sulfate and copper oxide,
3) hydrogen sulfide and graphite, 4) graphite and diamond.
A2. Substance KNS0 3 is
1) salt 2) acid 3) base 4) oxide.
A3. The number of electrons in the outer electronic layer silicon atom
1) 3 2) 14 3) 28 4) 4
A4. The precipitate is released when hydrogen chloride is added to the solution.
acids:
1) barium hydroxide 2) silver nitrate
3) potassium nitrate 4) potassium carbonate
A5. Equation Mg + H 2 S0 4 = H 2 + MgS0 4
Corresponds to the reaction of 1) compound, 2) substitution, 3) decomposition, 4) exchange.
A6. 500 g of solution contains 15 g of calcium nitrate, while the mass
the proportion of salt is (in%)
1) 3 2) 10 3) 20 4) 30
A7. 0.2 mol of carbon monoxide (P) (CO) occupy a volume of ... l (n.o.)
1) 0,2 2) 5,6 3) 4,48 4) 28
A8. 16 g oxygen (0 2 ) are ... mol
1) 0,5 2) 1 3) 16 4) 6,02-10 23
A9. The right side of the equation for the reaction between calcium hydroxide and
carbon dioxide with coefficients
1) CaC0 3 + 2H 2 0 2) CaCO 3 + H 2 0
3) CaCO 3 + H 2 4) CaO + H 2 CO 3
A10. In connection K 2 Mn0 4 oxidation state of manganese
1)+2. 2)+3 3)+6 4)+7
A11. In a substance of composition E 2 0 7 element E is
1) Р 2) С1 3) F 4) S
A12. A covalent polar bond is carried out in a substance
1) S 8 2) K 5 S 3) K 4) H 2 S0 4
A13. Iron (II) sulfate reacts in solution with
1) Cu 2) Si 3) Ag 4) Mg
A14. Calcium oxide reacts with each of the substances
1) KOH and HC1 2) S0 2 and H 2 0
3) MgO and C0 2 4) NO and HI
A15 In the equation of the reaction between aluminum and hydrogen bromide
substances, respectively, is
1)1:3 2) 3: 1 3) 2: 3 4) 1: 6
A16. Phosphorus is not used for
- making matches
- obtaining phosphorus (v) oxide in the production of phosphoric acid
- the formation of smoke screens during combustion
- making inscriptions glowing in the dark
A17. The reaction rate of Zn with H 2 S0 4 will decrease at
- introduction of a catalyst
- heating
- diluting sulfuric acid with water
- grinding zinc
A18. Basic oxides are
3) Li 2 0 and H 2 0 4) C0 2 and Si0 2
5) CaO and BeO
A19. 6 moles of ions are formed upon complete dissociation of 2 moles
l) Fe (N0 3) 2 2) FeS0 4 3) Fe (N0 3) 3 4) Fe 2 (S0 4) 3
1) 1,12 2) 11,2 3) 22,4 4)44,8
PART B
IN 1. The particle that accepts electrons in a chemical reaction is ...
B2. Establish a correspondence between the class of inorganic compounds and the formula of the substance. In strict accordance with the sequence of numbers in the left column, write the letters of the selected answers from the right column. Transfer the resulting sequence LETTER in the answer form (without numbers, commas and gaps). For example, GABV.
OT. 12 protons and 12 neutrons contains the nucleus of an atom of a chemical element ...
AT 4. The number of electrons in a copper atom is ...
AT 5. Arrange the elements in the order of strengthening the metallic properties, writing down the numbers of substances without spaces and commas l) Ga 2) C 3) Si 4) Ge
AT 6. Arrange the substances in ascending order of the oxidation state of bromine atoms, writing down the numbers of the substances without spaces or commas
- Br 2 2) NaBrO 3 3) NaBr 4) NaBrO
AT 7. When pouring solutions containing 2 mol of calcium nitrate and 3 mol of potassium carbonate, ... g of sediment was formed.
AT 8. Oxygen in the laboratory can be obtained
- decomposition of potassium permanganate B) by distillation of liquid air
- decomposition of sodium nitrate D) decomposition of magnesium oxide E) decomposition of marble
Answer: .
(Write down the corresponding letters in alphabetical order and transfer them to the answer sheet without spaces or commas).
FINAL WORK FOR THE COURSE OF INORGANIC CHEMISTRY 9 CL.
Option number 2
PART A
Choose the correct answer.
A1. Both complex and simple substances are in the series:
1) nitrogen and chlorine, 2) ammonia and diamond, 3) hydrogen sulfide and carbon dioxide, 4) hydrogen bromide and water.
A2. Substance KNS0 3 is
1) salt 2) acid 3) base 4) oxide
A3. The number of electrons in the outer layer of the sulfur atom
1) 4 2) 6 3) 16 4) 32
A4. 1000 g of solution contains 250 g of sulfuric acid, while
mass fraction of acid is (in%)
1) 25 2) 30 3) 40 4) 75
A5. 0.1 mol of neon (Ne) occupy a volume of ... l (n.u.)
1) 0,1 2) 2,24 3) 22,4 4) 20
A6. 4 g hydrogen (H 2 ) constitute ... mol (n.u.)
1) 0,5 2) 2 3) 12,04-10 23 4) 4
A7. The right side of the equation for the reaction between magnesium and sulfuric acid with coefficients
1) MgS0 4 + H 2 0 2) MgS0 4 + H 2
3) MgS0 4 + 2H 2 0 4) MgS0 3 + H 2
A8. The number of moles of NaOH required to react with 1 mole of FeCl 2 equals
1)1 2)2 3)3 4)4
A9. In connection НС10 4 chlorine oxidation state
1) +2 2) +3 3) +6 4) +7
A10. In the substance of the composition EO, the element E is
1) Na 2) Be 3) B 4) F
A11. A covalent non-polar bond is carried out in a substance
1) P 4 2) P 2 0 5 3) Ca 4) Ca 3 P 2
A12. Copper (II) sulfate reacts in solution with
1) Ag 2) Hg "3) Zn 4) S
A13. In the equation of the reaction between aluminum oxide and hydrogen bromide
acid, the ratio of the coefficients in front of the formulas of the reacting
substances, respectively, is
1)6:1 2) 1:6 3) 1:3 4)2:3
A14. Aluminum is not used
- as a catalyst in the production of sulfuric acid
- for the reduction of metals from oxides
- for the manufacture of electrical cables
- for the manufacture of aviation alloys
A15. In the reaction 2NaI + Br 2 = 2NaBr + I 2
the number of electrons taken by one oxidizer atom is equal to
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
A16. Basic oxides are
1) A1 2 0 3 and C0 2 2) BaO and Cu 2 0
3) Li 2 0 and H 2 0 4) C0 2 and Si0 2
A17. The amount of phosphorus substance that can react with 11.2 liters (standard) oxygen according to the equation
4P + 50 2 = 2P 2 0 5 ,
is ... mole
1) 0,4 2) 12,4 3) 8,96 4) 4
A18. 5 moles of ions are formed upon complete dissociation of 1 mole
l) Fe (N0 3) 2 2) A1 2 (S0 4) 3 3) Fe (N0 3) 3 4) MgS0 4
A19. Does not occur in nature
1) A1 2 0 3 2) A1 3) CaCO 3 4) NaCl
A20. When mixing solutions containing 1 mol of sodium carbonate and
1 mol of hydrochloric acid, gas with a volume of ... l (n.u.) will be released
1) 1,12 2) 11,2 3)22,4 4) 44,8
PART B
IN 1. Substances that decompose into ions in solutions or melts are ...
IN 2. Establish a correspondence between the class of inorganic compounds and the formula of a substance. In strict accordance with the sequence of numbers on the left column, write the letters of the selected answers from the right column. Transfer the resulting sequence E) Wa (OH) 2
AT 3. 17 protons and 18 neutrons contains the nucleus of an atom of a chemical element ...
AT 4. The number of electrons in a calcium atom is ...
AT 5. Arrange the elements in order of strengthening of non-metallic properties, writing down the numbers of substances without spaces and commas: 1) As 2) S 3) Se 4) Ge
AT 6. Arrange the substances in ascending order of oxidation state
phosphorus atoms by writing down the numbers of substances without spaces and commas
1) Р 4 2) Mg 3 P 2 3) РСl 5 4) Р 2 0 3
AT 7. When pouring solutions containing 2 mol of iron (II) chloride and 1 mol of sodium sulfide, ... g of precipitate was formed.
AT 8. Sulfur (IV) oxide can be obtained
- the action of dilute sulfuric acid on magnesium
B) burning sulfur
- combustion of hydrogen sulfide in excess air
D) the action of concentrated sulfuric acid on copper
E) the action of dilute sulfuric acid on sodium sulfide
Answer: .
(Write down the corresponding letters in alphabetical order and transfer to the answer form without spaces or commas).
CHEMISTRY , 1 COURSE, base of 9 classes. Teacher: Arkanova Elena Ivanovna Conditions for completing the assignment: test tasks are performed in classroom, for answering questions, a time of at least 2.5 academic hours is allotted (80 questions * 2 minutes). Tasks are performed on answer sheets. Option 1 |
Indication |
Type A assignments Eight electrons on the outer electron layer have a) S b) Si c) O d) Ne The number of orbitals at the f-sublevel: a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7. 3. The number of valence electrons in the chromium atom a) 1 b) 2 at 4 d) 6. 4. The covalent nature of bonds in a number of compounds LiF - BeF 2 - BF 3 - CF 4 - NF 3 - OF 2 - F 2: d) does not change 5. An electron is ... a) a section of the chain, consisting of series-connected elements b) the charge of an atom of an element v) 6. For substances with a metal crystal lattice, it is unusual to: a) low boiling point b) fragility c) thermal conductivity d) plasticity 7. Does not undergo hydrolysis: a) sodium acetate b) zinc chloride c) ethanol d) fat. 8.The reaction of magnesium with: a) 1% HCl solution b) 5% HCl solution c) 10% HCl solution d) 15% HCl solution. 9. Most strong acid is an a) silicon b) sulfuric c) orthophosphoric d) chlorine 10. Specify the formula for determining the mass fraction of a substance a) = m / V b) M = m / . v) = V / V m d) ω = A r: M r 11. Specify molecular weight Cl 2 O 7 a) 183 b) 105 c) 224 d) 97 12. Specify the mass fraction S vSO 2 a) 20.13% b) 17.5% c) 22.43% d) 97% 13. With an increase in the area of the reactant, the reaction rate a) increase c) decrease a) gram per liter c) mol b) gram d) amount n a) K 2 MnO 4 : K +1 , Mn +4 , O -2 ; b) Ba (ClO 3 ) 2 : Ba +2 , Cl +5 , O -2 ; v)F 2 O: F -2 , O +2 ; 16. Indicate the equation of the oxidation reaction sodium sulfite to sulfate sodium: a) 5Nа 2 SO 3 + 2КМnО 4 + ЗН 2 SO 4 = 5Nа 2 SO 4 + К 2 SO 4 + 2МnSO 4 + ЗН 2 О. b) Na 2 SO 3 + KMnO 4 = Na 2 O + K 2 O + MnSO 3 17. Determine the mass of 5 mol of CO2: a)176 g; b)220g .; v)47g .; 18. Indicate which compound is a strong electrolyte: a) Mg OH c) Zn SO 3 b) H 2 S d) Ba (NO 3) 2 19. Complete the reaction equation:Ca(H2 PO4 ) 2 + HCl = a) CaCl 2 + 2H 3 PO 4; b) Ca OH + 2H 3 PO 4; c) Ca (OH) 2 + 2H 3 PO 4; 20. Indicate how the hydrolysis of Cr 2 (SO 4 ) 3 : a ) Cr 2 (SO 4) 3 + 2H 2 S = 2Cr (OH) SO 3 b) Cr 2 (SO 4 ) 3 + 2H 2 O = 2Cr (OH) SO 4 reaction scheme: a) 2 Al + 6NaOH + 6H 2 O = 2Na 3 b ) 3Al + 9NaOH + 9H 2 O = 3Na 3 22. What is the nature of the reaction of the environment aqueous solution nitric acid? a) Alkaline, HN O 3 = NO 3 + + OH -; b) Sour, HN About 3 = H + + N About 3 - ; 23. Indicate what is formed in oxygen and air during the combustion of acetylene? a) ammonia and carbon dioxide; b) water and ethylene; c) water and carbon dioxide; 24. For the majority inorganic substances are reactions characteristic? a) burning; b) connections; v) decomposition; 25. In the scheme of transformations FeCl 3 X 1 X 2 Fe (OH) 3 a) Fe 2 (SO 4) 3 and Fe 2 O 3 b) FePO 4 and Fe 3 O 4 c) Fe (NO 3) 3 and Fe 2 O 3 d) Fe (OH) 3 and Fe 2 (SO 4) 3 26. Indicate the type of hybridization of key carbon atoms in the molecule: CH 2 CH CH 3 a) sp 3 b) sp c) sp 2 27. The angle between the axes of the carbon atom for sp-hybrid orbitals is: a) 109 28 b) 120 c) 180 28. In sp 2 -hybridization does not involve the orbitals of the second energy level of the atom carbon in quantity: a) one b) two c) three 29. The class of alkenes includes hydrocarbons with the general formula: a) C n H 2n + 2 b) C n H 2n c) C n H 2n-2 30. Compounds with a closed chain of carbon atoms in a molecule are called: a) acyclic b) carbocyclic 31. All alcohols have a suffix in the name: a) -en b) - ol c) -al 32. Isomers have the same: a) number of atoms b) structure of molecules c) properties 33 Substances CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 and CH 3 CH CH 3 are: a) homologues b) isomers c) neither homologues nor isomers 34. Potassium permanganate solution decolorizes: a) ethylene b) ethane c) 2-methylpropane d) 3,3-dimethylpentane. CH 3 CH 2 OH CH 2 CH 2 + H 2 O , refers to reactions: a) substitution b) addition c) elimination. 36. The reaction, the equation of which is given above, is the reaction: a) dehydrogenation b) dehydration c) dehydrochlorination. 37. Alkans correspond to the general formula: 38. Homologues are: a) ethane and ethylene b) propane and ethane c) butane and isobutane d) methane and ethene a) ethylene b) pentane c) 2-methylbutane d) hexene-1 40. Carbon atoms in the state of sp 3 - hybridization are present in the molecule: a) pentane b) ethylene c) 2-methylbutane d) n-heptane 41. The most typical type of reaction for alkenes: a) elimination b) isomerization c) addition d) substitution 42. Isomerism is characteristic of alkanes: a) provisions functional group b) carbon skeleton c) the position of the double bond d) geometric 43. The main part of natural gas is: a) ethane b) propane c) hexane d) methane 44. Cracking of petroleum products is ... a) separation of petroleum hydrocarbons into fractions b) conversion of saturated petroleum hydrocarbons into aromatic c) thermal decomposition of petroleum products, leading to the formation hydrocarbons with fewer carbon atoms per molecule d) conversion of aromatic hydrocarbons of oil into limiting 45. Multiple bonds are absent in the hydrocarbon molecule: a) cyclopropanab) butadiene-1,3 c) propyne d) benzene 46. The aromatic ring is contained in the molecule: a) hexane b) cyclohexane c) hexene d) 1,4-dimethylbenzene. 47. The polymerization reaction is possible for ... a) butadiene-1,3 b) propane c) chloroethane d) benzene. 48. The reaction of the addition of water to unsaturated hydrocarbons is called ... a) hydrogenation b) halogenation c) hydration d) hydrohalogenation. 49. A substance, the formula of which is CH 3 CH 2 OH, refers to ... a) monohydric alcohol) phenols CH 3 CH CH CH CO, has a name: CH 3 H a) 4-methylpentanal b) 2-methylpentanal c) 2-methylpentene-3-alg) hexanal 51. Formation of a bright blue complex compound with copper (II) hydroxide a) aldehydes b) polyhydric alcohols c) phenols d) ketones 52. The reaction of the "silver mirror" gives: a) ethanol b) ethanediol-1,2 c) propanetriol-1,2,3 g) ethanal . 53. Carboxylic acids include a substance whose formula ... a) CH 3 COOH b) CH 3 SON c) CH 3 O CH 3 d) CH 3 COOCH 3 54. Substance, the formula of which CH 3 SOOS 2 H 5 has a name ... a) diethyl ether b) methyl acetate c) ethyl acetate d) ethyl ester of formic acid. 55. Soap is ... a ) sodium salt of higher carboxylic acid b) glycerin ester c) higher carboxylic acid ester d) a mixture of higher carboxylic acids. 56. The production of margarine is based on the reaction: a) hydrolysis of fats b) esterification c) saponification of fats d) hydrogenation of liquid fats. 57. Is a polymer: a) glucose b) cellulose c) sucrose d) fructose 58. The reaction of the "silver mirror" enters ... a) glucose b) fructose c) sucrose d) starch 59. The reaction is not typical for glucose: a) alcoholic fermentation b) hydrolysis c) oxidation d) reduction 60. The following statement is true ... a) As a result of the polycondensation of amino acids, peptides are formed; b) Synthetic carboxylic acids are obtained from amino acids; c) Amino acids do not change the color of indicators; d) Proteins are a mixture of amino acids linked together intermolecular bonds. |
Indication In questions 61 through 65, establish a correspondence between the law, electrical quantity and their concept. Fill out the suggested response forms. |
1. Periodic law of DI Mendeleev a) Under the influence electric current positively charged ions of the solute move towards the cathode, negatively charged towards the anode. 2. Theory of chemical structure organic substances Butlerova A.M. b) 3. Electrolytic theory dissociation c) Carbon atoms connecting in a chain form a certain sequence in accordance with valence, on which their properties depend 4. Atomic-molecular doctrine d) The properties of simple bodies and compounds of elements are periodically dependent on the value of their atomic masses. 1 - … 2 - … 3 - … 4 -… 1) = a) =m / 2) = b) =V / Vm 3) ω = c) = A r ∙ n/ M r ; 4) M= d) =m / V 1 -…. 2 - …. 3 - …. 4 - …. alkanes - a) C n H 2 n . 2G alkenes and cycloalkanes - b) C n H 2 n + 1G alkynes and alkadienes - c) C n H 2 n – 6 arenas - d) C n H 2 n – 2 monohaloalkanes - e) C n H 2 n dihaloalkanes - e) C n H 2n + 2 amino acids g) C n H 2 n (NH 2 ) COOH
scheme : 1) N a) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 2 , 2) Si b) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 6 , 3) F e v) 1 s 2 2 s 2 2 p 3 . 1 -…. 2 - … 3 - … 1) Li 2 O + S eO 3 a) K 2 CO 3, 2) CO 2 + K 2 Ob) Ca (NO 3 ) 2 3) N 2 О 5 + CaO v)Li 2 Se Oh 4, 1 -…. 2 - … 3- … |
Indication For tasks 66 to 75, finish the phrase you started or insert words |
66. Expression of the reaction using chemical formulas are called ... 67. Properties of elements and their connections are located in ... depending on the charge of the nucleus 68. Heat effect - the amount of heat that ... 69. Chemical equilibrium is a state ... 70. Hydrolysis is a process of the exchange interaction of salt with water, accompanied by the formation of ... 71. A catalyst is a substance that accelerates the reaction, does not ... 72. Solvation is the process of interaction of molecules and ions of a solute ... 73. Redox reactions consist of two processes: ... and ... 74. Electrolysis is a process of synthesis or decomposition of substances with the help of ... |
Indication In tasks of type B from 75 to 80, solve the problem and offer the correct answer |
Type B assignments 75. Calculate the mass of oxygen reacted with organic substance weighing 33.3 g. As a result of the reaction, the following substances: I) carbon dioxide - (CO 2) weighing 52.8 g; 2) carbon monoxide - (CO) weighing 11.2 g; 3) carbon black (C) weighing 2.4 g; 4) water weighing 40.5 g. 76. Determine the formula of a chemical compound, if the mass the shares of its constituent elements are equal: H - 2.04%, S - 32.65%, O - 65.31%. 77. What is the volume of oxygen released from one mole each of the substances: KClO 3, KMn O 4, KN O 3, Hg O according to the data below reactions? 2 KClO 3 = 2KSl+ ZO 2 , 2KMnO 4 = K 2 MnO 4 + MnO 2 + O 2 , 2KNO 3 = 2KNO 2 + O 2 , 2HgO = 2Hg + O 2. 78 1) AlWITHl 3 + KOH (ex.) → 2) AlWITHl 3 + NH 3 (f.)+ H 2 About → 3) Al( NO 3 ) 3 + Na 2 S+ H 2 About → 4) Na [Al(HE) 4 ] + CO 2 → 79 the following transformations: M g → МgS О 4 → Мg (NO 3) 2 → Мg О → (СН 3 СОО) 2 Мg. 80. Write down the structural formula of 2,2,5,5-tetramethylhexane. Write the formula for its isomer |
Option 2
Indication
In tasks 1 to 60, indicate the only correct answer
1. The electronic configuration 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 1 has an atom of the element
a) K b) Ca c) Ba d) Na.
2. The number of orbitals on the d-sublevel:
a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7.
3. The number of valence electrons in a strontium atom
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 10.
4. Ionic nature of bonds in a number of compounds
Li 2 O - Na 2 O - K 2 O - Rb 2 O
a) decreases; b) increases;
c) first increases, then decreases; d) does not change
5. An electronic orbital is ...
a) the section of the path that the elements of the substance connected together pass
b) the conditional path along which the electron moves around the nucleus of the element
v ) negatively charged particle
6. What will change when the sequence of atoms in the molecule changes:
a) the amount and volume of the substance,
b) quantitative composition and the density of the substance,
c) the mass of the molecule and geometric shape.
G) Chemical structure and properties
7. In which of the aqueous solutions is the alkaline medium:
a) sodium acetate b) copper (II) nitrate
c) potassium chloride d) aluminum sulfate.
8.The reaction will proceed at the fastest rate at room temperature:
a) zinc with sulfuric acid
b) sodium with phenol
c) iron with oxygen
d) solutions of copper (II) sulfate and potassium hydroxide.
9. Of the listed metals, the most fusible is
a) copper b) mercury c) tin d) sodium.
10. Specify the formula to determinemolar mass of a substance
a) = m / V b) M = m / . v) = V / V m G) ω = A r: M r
11. Specify the mass fraction S vSO 2
a) 20.13% b) 17.5% c) 22.43% G) 97%
12. Indicate the molecular weight of Cl 2 O 7
a) 183 b) 105 c) 224 d) 97
13. With an increase in the density of the reactant, the reaction rate
a) increase c) decrease
b) will not change d) will be equal to zero
14. Specify the units of measure for molar mass
a) gram per liter c) mol
b) gram d) amount n
15. Indicate where the oxidation states are correctly placed
a ) Ca (NO 2 ) 2 : Ca +2 , N +2 , O -2 ;
b) H 2 SiF 2 : H +1 , Si +3 , F -1 ;
v) Cr 2 (SO 4) 3: Cr +3, S +6, O -2.
16. Indicate the reaction equation for the oxidation of iron (II) disulfide with concentrated nitric acid.
a) FeS 2 + 18Н N O 3 (conc) = F e (N O 3) 3 + 2H 2 SO 4 + 15NO 2 + 7H 2 O.
b) F e (SO 4) 3 + HN O 3 (conc) = F e (N O 3) 3 + H 2 SO 4 + NO 2 + H 2 O.
17. Determine the mass of 9 molS O2 :
a)176 g;
b)220g .;
v)576g .;
18. Indicate which compound is not a strong electrolyte:
a) HJ c) KOH
b) H 2 S d) Ba (NO 3) 2
19. List the missing substance:P2 O5 +...= Ca3 (PO4 ) 2 + H2 O
a) Ca N;
b)Ca OH;
v) Ca (OH) 2 ;
20. Indicate how hydrolysis occurs R2 S3 :
a) Р 2 S 3 + 6H 2 O = 2H 3 PO 3 + 3H 2 S
b) R 2 SO 3 + 6H = 2H 3 PO 3 + 3H 2 SO 3
21. Indicate, correctly adjusted by the electronic balance method,
reaction scheme:
a) 3Na + 2H 2 O = 4 NaOH + H 2
b) 2Na + H 2 O = 2NaOH + H 2
22. What is the nature of the reaction of the environment of an aqueous solution of ammonia?
a) Alkaline, NH 3 + H 2 O = NH 4 + + OH - ;
b)Sour, NH 3 + H 2 O = NH 3 + + OH - + H - ; ;
23. Indicate the correct, empirical formula of a substance, consisting of:
Na - 32.8%, Al - 12.9%, F - 54.3%.
a) Na 2 Al3 F;
b) Na 3 AlF;
v) NaAlF;
24. Are reactions typical for most organic substances?
a)burning;
b) connections;
v) decomposition;
25. In the scheme of transformations Al (OH) 3
Y
Al (OH) 3
substances "X 1" and "X 2" can be respectively:
a) K 2 SO 4 and KOH
b) NaCl and HCl
c) Na 2 SO 4 and H 2 SO 4
d) HNO 3 and NaOH
26 Type of hybridization of carbon atoms in a molecule CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
a) sp 2 b) sp 3 c) sp
27. The angle between the axes of the carbon atom for sp 3 - hybrid orbitals is:
a) 109, 28 b) 120 c) 180
28. The sp-hybridization does not involve the orbitals of the second energy
the level of a carbon atom in the amount:
a) one b) two c) three
29. The class of alcohols includes substances with a functional group ...
a) CO b) -OH c) SONON
30. Compounds with an open chain of atoms in a molecule are called:
a) acyclic
b) carbocyclic
31. All alcohols have a suffix in their names ...
a) -en b) -ol c) -al
32. Isomers differ from each other ...
a) the number of atoms
b) the structure of molecules and properties
33 Substances CH 3 CH 2 CH 3 and CH 3 CH 2 CHCH 3 are:
a) homologues b) isomers c) neither homologues nor isomers.
34. A solution of potassium permanganate does not discolor a substance with the formula ...
a) CH 3 CH 3 b) CH 2 CH CH 3
c) H 3 C CH CH CH 3 d) CH 2 CH 2
35. Reaction, the equation of which CH 3 CHCH 2 + H 2 CH 3 CH 2 CH 3 , refers
to reactions:
a) substitution b) addition c) elimination.
36. The reaction, the equation of which is given above, is a reaction ...
a) hydrogenation b) halogenation c) polymerization
37. Alkenes correspond to the general formula:
a) Сn Н 2n b) Сn Н 2n + 2 c) Сn Н 2n-2 d) Сn Н 2n - 6
38. Homologues are:
a) methane and chloromethane b) propene and ethene
c) ethylene and butane d) 2-methylbutane and butane.
39. Isomers are absent in hydrocarbons:
a) butene-1 b) propane c) n-heptane d) 2-methylpentene-2
40. ¶- there is no bond in the molecule ...
a) propene b) 2-methylhexane c) 2-methylhexene-2 d) ethylene.
41. The most typical type of reaction for alkanes ...
a) elimination b) isomerization
c) accession d) substitution
42. Alkenes are characterized by isomerism ...
a) the position of the functional group
b) carbon skeleton
c) the position of the double bond, geometric
43. By its composition, oil is ...
a) simple substance
b) a complex substance of the class of alkenes
c) a mixture of hydrocarbons, the basis of which is alkanes of linear and
branched structure
d) a mixture of alkenes.
44. Oil distillation is carried out in order to obtain ...
a) only methane and benzene
b) only gasoline and methane
c) various petroleum products
d) only aromatic hydrocarbons.
45 Butadiene contains ...
a) one double bond
b) two double bonds
c) one triple bond
d) two triple bonds.
46. Weak acidic properties are shown by:
a) alkenes b) alkynes c) alkadienes d) arenes.
47. Reaction of hydrogen addition to unsaturated hydrocarbons
called:
a) hydrogenation b) halogenation
c) hydration d) hydrohalogenation.
48. The process of obtaining rubber from rubber is called:
a) polymerization b) vulcanization
c) rectification d) hydration.
49. Substance, the formula of which CH 3 COOH, refers to…
a) monohydric alcohols b) phenols
c) aldehydes d) polyhydric alcohols
50. Substance, the formula of which CH 3 CH CH 2 CH CH 3, has a title
||
OH C 2 H 5
a) 2-ethylpentanol-5 b) 4-ethylpentanol-2
c) 3-methylhexanol-5 g) 4-methylhexanol-2
51. Formation of a violet complex compound with iron (III) chloride
is an qualitative reactions on…
a) phenol b) aldehyde c) monohydric alcohol d) polyhydric alcohol.
52. Thanks to Kucherov's reaction, you can get:
a) ethanal b) ethanol c) glycerin d) phenol.
53. An ester is a substance whose formula is:
a) CH 3 COOH
b) CH 3 SON
c) CH 3 O CH 3
d) CH 3 COOCH 3
54. Liquid fats differ from solid fats in that they contain ...
a) free hydroxyl groups
b) residues of aromatic carboxylic acids
c) esters of higher carboxylic acids and ethylene glycol
d) residues of unsaturated carboxylic acids.
55. A substance whose formula is CH 3 CH 3 CCH 2 SOSN 3 OH has a name:
a) 3-methylbutanoic acid b) 2,2-dimethylbutanoic acid
c) 3,3-dimethylbutanoic acid d) hexanoic acid
56. Esters are obtained by the reaction:
a) hydration b) esterification c) polymerization d) saponification.
57. By its chemical properties, glucose is ...
a) polyhydric alcohol b) aldehyde
c) aldehyde alcohol d) acid
58. Blue staining with iodine solution gives:
a) glucose b) starch c) cellulose d) sucrose
59. The following of the statements is not true:
a) amino acids dissolve well in water;
b) amino acids are obtained in industry by the Zinin reaction;
c) amino acids exhibit amphoteric properties;
d) amino acids enter into esterification reactions.
60. Aniline, unlike phenol:
a) reacts with bromine
b) poorly soluble in water
c) reacts with hydrochloric acid
d) burns.
Indication
In tasks 61 to 65, set the correspondence and fill out the proposed answer form
61. Establish correspondence between law, theory and their formulation:
1. Law of conservation of mass of matter a) Under the influence of an electric current, positively charged ions of a solute move to the cathode, negatively charged to the anode.
2. Avogadro's law
b) Bodies are composed of molecules and atoms that are in continuous motion, which are acted upon by the forces of repulsion and attraction.
3. Electrolytic theory
dissociation v)NA = 6,02 . 10 23 particles of matter. Equal volumes of any gases contain an equal number of molecules.
4. Atomic-molecular doctrine d)The mass of substances entering into a chemical reaction is equal to the mass of substances resulting from the reaction
1 - … 2 - … 3 - … 4 -…
62. Establish a correspondence between the value and its formula
1) = a) =m /
2) = b) =V / Vm
3) ω = c) =A r ∙ n/ M r ;
4) M= d) =m / V
1 -…. 2 - …. 3 - …. 4 - ….
63. Establish a correspondence between the substance and its formula
phenols - a) C n H 2 n – 7 OH
alcohols - b) R 1 - NH - R 2
carboxylic acids - c) C n H 2 n + 1 NH 2 , R - NH 2
esters - d) C n H 2 n + 1 COOHR –COOH
primary amines - e) C n H 2 n + 1 OH, R - COH
secondary amines - e) R 1 - COOR 2
7.tertiary amines g) R 1 – N - R 2
R 3
1 -…. 2 - … 3 - … 4 - … 5- … 6- … 7- …
64. Establish a correspondence between the substance and its electronic-graphic
scheme:
1) TOr a) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 10 3p 6 5s 2 4d 10 5p 4 ,
2) Those b) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 2 3d 10 3p 6 5s 2 4d 10 5p 6 6s 2 4f 14 5d 4 .
3) Wv)1 s 2 2 s 2 2 p 6 3 s 2 3 p 6 4 s 2 3 d 10 3 p 6 ,
1 -…. 2 - … 3 - …
65. Establish a correspondence between chemical reaction and the reaction product:
1) CO 2 + NH 3 + H 2 Oa)2 NaHSO 3 .
2) SO 2 + Na 2 SO 3 + H 2 Ob)NH 4 NSO 3 .
3) SO 3 + H 2 Ov)H 2 SO 4 .
1 -…. 2 - … 3- …
Indication
For tasks 66 through 74, complete the phrase you started.
66. If two elements form several chemical compounds, then the masses of one of the elements are related to each other as small integers - this is the law ...
67. The properties of substances are determined by their ... and ...
68. Heat effect - the amount of heat that ...
69 ... Chemical equilibrium is a state ...
70. Hydrolysis is a process of the exchange interaction of salt with water, accompanied by the formation of ...
71 ... The catalyst is a substance that accelerates the reaction, does not ...
72. Oxidation of aldehydes with ammonia solution of silver oxide - ...
73. The common name for monohydric alcohols is ...
74. Reaction of formation of esters as a result of interaction
alcohols with acids - ...
Indication
In assignments type B from 75 to 80 solve the problem and indicate the correct answer
Tasks type B
1. Calculate the mass fractions of hydrogen and oxygen in the peroxide
hydrogen H 2 O 2.
2. The reaction proceeds according to the equation: ZVa 2 + + 2PO 4 3- = Ba 3 (PO 4) 2 ↓
Write two different equations in molecular form,
corresponding to this reaction.
3 ... Give examples of salt formation: a) from two simple
substances; b) from two complex substances; c) from simple and
complex substance.
4 ... Complete equations for the following reactions:
1) FeSO 4 + KClO 3 + H 2 SO 4 → ...
2) FeSO 4 + KClO 3 + KOH → ...
3) I 2 + Va(HE) 2 → ...
4) Kvr+ KBrO 3 + H 2 SO 4 → ...
5 ... Write the reaction equations that allow you to carry out
the following transformations: N аСl → N а → N аН → N аОН → N аНS О 3.
6 ... Write structural formulas 2.2-dimethylpentane and
2.3-dimethylpentane.
Indicators for evaluating results mastering the discipline "Chemistry"
Assessment of knowledge and skills of students within the discipline section
Excellent grade
91-100% correct answers
163 - 179
points
Rating "good"
76-90% correct answers
136 - 162 points
Assessment "satisfactory"
61-75% correct answers
109 - 135 points
Rating "unsatisfactory"
60% or less correct answers
108 or less points
Number of options:
Test assignments consist of 2 options with 80 questions each.
Lead time test task:
- 160 minutes
Estimates are announced on the day of the event.
Answer form
(evaluation paper)
Student _________________ group _________ option___ 1
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answer
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Total for the test
GRADE
Student ______________
(signature)
Checked ____________ /
Answer form
(evaluation paper)
Student _________________ group _________ option ___2
In questions 1 through 60, indicate the only correct answer
question
answer
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answer
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answer
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answer
In tasks from 61 to 65, set the correspondence and fill out the proposed form
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answer
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Total for the test
GRADE
Student ______________
(signature)
Checked ____________ /
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