Test papers:

OPTION 1

Part 1

A1. The element of the third period of the main subgroup of the III group of PSHE is:

A2. An isotope that has 8 protons and 10 neutrons in its nucleus:

A3. An atom of a chemical element whose electron shell contains 17 electrons:

A4. An atom has two electron layers (energy levels):

A5. A pair of chemical elements that have 5 electrons in the outer electronic level:

A6.

A. In a period, the metallic properties of the atoms of elements increase with increasing serial number.

B. In a period, the metallic properties of the atoms of elements weaken with increasing serial number.

Part 2

IN 1.

Particle:	Electron distribution:
	1) 2e, 8e, 8e, 2e
	2) 2e, 8e, 2e
	4) 2e, 8e, 3e
	5) 2e, 8e, 18e, 4e

AT 2. Ionic bonds are:

AT 3. The relative molecular weight of barium chloride BaCl2 is __________.

Part 3

C1. Give the characteristic of the element with Z = 11 (Appendix 3, paragraphs I (1-5), II (1-4)). Write down the structure of its Na+ ion.

Dear eighth grader!

You have 40 minutes to complete the test. The work consists of 3 parts and includes 10 tasks.

Part 1 includes 6 basic level tasks (A1-A6). Each question has 4 possible answers, of which only one is correct. For the completion of each task - 1 point.

Part 2 consists of 3 tasks of an advanced level (B1-B3), to which you must give a short answer in the form of a number or sequence of numbers. For each task - 2 points.

Part 3 contains 1 most difficult C1 voluminous task, which requires a complete answer. For completing the task, you can get 3 points.

Points received for completed tasks are summed up. The maximum you can score is 15 points. I wish you success!

Work evaluation system:

OPTION-2

Part 1

A1. The element of the second period of the main subgroup of the III group of PSHE is:

A2. The designation of an isotope with 26 protons and 30 neutrons in the nucleus:

A3. An atom of a chemical element whose nucleus contains 14 protons is:

A4. An atom has three electron layers (energy levels):

A5. A pair of chemical elements that have 3 electrons in the outer electronic level:

A6. Are the following statements correct?

A. In the main subgroup, the non-metallic properties of the atoms of the elements increase with increasing serial number.

B. In the main subgroup, the non-metallic properties of the atoms of elements weaken with increasing serial number.

Part 2

IN 1. Establish a correspondence between the particle and the distribution of electrons over energy levels:

Particle:	Electron distribution:
	1) 2e, 8e, 7e
	2) 2e, 8e, 2e
	4) 2e, 8e, 8e
	6) 2e, 8e, 8e, 1e

AT 2. Compounds with a covalent polar bond are:

AT 3. The relative molecular weight of aluminum oxide Al2O3 is _______.

Part 3

C1. Give the characteristics of the element with Z = 16 (Appendix 3, paragraphs I (1-5), II (1-4)). Write down the structure of its S2- ion.

Answers.

Part 1

Option 1
Option 2

Part 2

Option 1
Option 2

Part 3

Performance plan	Option 1	Option 2
I. Position element in periodical system:
1. serial number, name
(large, small)
4. group, subgroup	1, main	6, main
5. relative atomic mass
II. Structure element atom
1. charge of the nucleus of an atom
2. formula composition of the atom (number of p; n; e -)	Na (11p; 12n;) 11 e-	S (16p; 16n;) 16 e-
atom structure
4. formula electronic configuration		1s2 2s2 2p6 3s23p4
5. number e - at the last level metal or non-metal		6, non-metal
III. Comparison metallic and non-metallic properties with neighbors:
1. by period
2. by group (metal with non-metal do not compare)
Structure diagram and she

Examination No. 2

The nitrogen subgroup consists of five elements: nitrogen, phosphorus, arsenic, antimony and bismuth. These are the p-elements of group V of the periodic system of D. I. Mendeleev.
At the outer energy level, the atoms of these elements contain five electrons, which have the configuration ns2np3 and are distributed as follows:

Therefore, the highest degree of oxidation of these elements is +5, the lowest is -3, and +3 is also characteristic.
The presence of three unpaired electrons at the outer level indicates that in the unexcited state, the atoms of the elements have a valence of 3. The outer level of the nitrogen atom consists of only two sublevels - 2s and 2p. The atoms of the remaining elements of this subgroup have vacant cells of the d-sublevel on the outer energy levels. Consequently, one of the s-electrons of the outer level can, upon excitation, go to the d-sublevel of the same level, which leads to the formation of 5 unpaired electrons.

outer electron shell of phosphorus (unexcited atom)

the outer electron shell of an excited phosphorus atom.

Thus, phosphorus, arsenic, antimony and bismuth in an excited state have 5 unpaired electrons, and their valency in this state is 5.
In the nitrogen atom, it is impossible to excite an electron in this way due to the absence of a d-sublevel at the second level. Therefore, nitrogen cannot be pentavalent, but it can form a fourth covalent bond by the donor-acceptor mechanism due to the lone electron pair 2s2. Another process is possible for the nitrogen atom. When one of the two 2s electrons is detached, nitrogen passes into a singly charged tetravalent N+ ion.

From nitrogen to bismuth, the atomic radii increase and the ionization potentials decrease. The reducing properties of neutral atoms increase from N to Bi, while the oxidizing properties weaken (see Table 21).
With hydrogen, nitrogen, phosphorus, and arsenic form polar RH3 compounds, exhibiting a negative oxidation state of -3. RH3 molecules have a pyramidal shape. In these compounds, the bonds of the elements with hydrogen are stronger than in the corresponding compounds of the elements of the oxygen subgroup and especially the halogen subgroup. Therefore, hydrogen compounds of elements of the nitrogen subgroup in aqueous solutions do not form hydrogen ions.

With oxygen, elements of the nitrogen subgroup form oxides of the general formula R2O3 and R2O5. The oxides correspond to the acids HRO2 and HRO3 (and the orthoacids H3RO4, except for nitrogen). Within the subgroup, the nature of the oxides varies as follows: N2O3 - acidic oxide; P4O6 - weakly acidic oxide; As2O3 - amphoteric oxide with a predominance of acidic properties; Sb2O3 - amphoteric oxide with a predominance of basic properties; Bi2O3 is the main oxide. Thus, the acidic properties of oxides of the composition R2O3 and R2O5 decrease with an increase in the atomic number of the element.
As can be seen from Table. 21, within the subgroup from nitrogen to bismuth, non-metallic properties decrease and metallic properties increase. In antimony, these properties are expressed in the same way, in bismuth, metallic properties predominate, and in nitrogen, non-metallic properties. Phosphorus, arsenic and antimony form several allotropic compounds.

Nitrogen.

Receipt

In laboratories, it can be obtained by the decomposition reaction of ammonium nitrite:

The reaction is exothermic, releasing 80 kcal (335 kJ), so cooling of the vessel is required during its course (although ammonium nitrite is required to start the reaction).

In practice, this reaction is carried out by adding dropwise a saturated solution of sodium nitrite to a heated saturated solution of ammonium sulfate, while the ammonium nitrite formed as a result of the exchange reaction instantly decomposes.

The gas released in this case is contaminated with ammonia, nitric oxide (I) and oxygen, from which it is purified by successively passing through solutions of sulfuric acid, iron (II) sulfate and over hot copper. The nitrogen is then dried.

Another laboratory method for obtaining nitrogen is by heating a mixture of potassium dichromate and ammonium sulfate (in a ratio of 2:1 by weight). The reaction goes according to the equations:

The purest nitrogen can be obtained by decomposition of metal azides:

The so-called "air", or "atmospheric" nitrogen, that is, a mixture of nitrogen with noble gases, is obtained by reacting air with hot coke, and the so-called "generator" or "air" gas is formed - raw materials for chemical synthesis and fuel . If necessary, nitrogen can be separated from it by absorbing carbon monoxide.

Molecular nitrogen is produced industrially by fractional distillation of liquid air. This method can also be used to obtain "atmospheric nitrogen". Nitrogen plants and stations that use the method of adsorption and membrane gas separation are also widely used.

One of the laboratory methods is passing ammonia over copper (II) oxide at a temperature of ~700 °C:

Ammonia is taken from its saturated solution by heating. The amount of CuO is 2 times more than the calculated one. Immediately before use, nitrogen is purified from oxygen and ammonia impurities by passing over copper and its oxide (II) (also ~700 °C), then dried with concentrated sulfuric acid and dry alkali. The process is rather slow, but worth it: the gas is very pure.

Similarity of elements:

The same structure of the outer electron layer of atoms ns 2 np 3 ;

P-elements;

Higher s. O. is +5;

Lower s. O. equal to -3 (for Sb and Bi it is of little character).

For the elements of the main subgroup of group V, the group name "pnictogens" is sometimes used, introduced by analogy with the term "halogens" and "chalcogens" and formed from the symbols of the elements phosphorus P and nitrogen N.

Valence states of atoms

For P, As, Sb, Bi atoms, 2 valence states are possible:

Basic ns 2 np 3

Horny ns 1 np 3 nd 1

The difference between nitrogen and other elements of the subgroup

1. Due to the absence of d-orbitals in the nitrogen atom on the outer electron layer, the number of covalent bonds formed by the nitrogen atom by the exchange mechanism cannot be more than 3.

2. The presence of an unshared electron pair at the 2s sublevel of the nitrogen atom makes it possible to form a covalent bond by the donor-acceptor mechanism. Thus, the highest valency of N is equal to IV.

3. In compounds with oxygen, nitrogen exhibits oxidation states +1, +2, +3, +4, +5.

Vertical change in the properties of elements and substances formed by them

Unlike halogens and chalcogens, in the main subgroup of group V, there is a sharper change in the properties of elements and the simple substances they form as the nuclear charge and atomic radius increase:

Vertical change in the properties of elements and the simple substances they form
	nonmetals			metal with some signs of non-metallicity
Oxides and hydroxides	Nitrogen and its oxygen compounds are considered separately due to a number of differences.
E 2 O 3 and the corresponding hydroxides		P 2 O 3 (P 4 O 6) acid oxide	As 2 O 3 acid oxide with signs of amphoterism	Sb 2 O 3 amphoteric oxide	Bi 2 O 3 basic oxide
E 2 O 5 and the corresponding hydroxides		P 2 O 5 (P 4 O 10) acid oxide	As 2 O 5 acid oxide	Sb 2 O 5 acid oxide	Bi 2 O 5 amphoteric weak
		HPO 3 (H 3 PO 4)
		weak acids
	Acidic properties weaken
	Basic properties are enhanced

Hydrogen compounds EN 3

Elements of the main subgroup of group V form volatile compounds with hydrogen, which are poisonous gases with characteristic odors. They are strong reducing agents. Unlike hydrogen compounds of non-metals of groups VII and VI, they do not form H + ions in aqueous solutions, i.e., they do not exhibit acidic properties.

16. Which of the gases taken with the same mass occupies the largest volume under the same conditions:

17. Determine the molar mass equivalent (g / mol) of sulfur in sulfur oxide (VI):

18. What is the mass fraction (%) of the metal in the oxide if the molar mass of the equivalent of the trivalent metal is 15 g / mol:

19. What is the relative molecular weight of a gas if this gas is 2.2 times heavier than air:

20. Which of the following equations is called the Mendeleev-Clapeyron equation:

3)PV=RT

21. Indicate 3 gases that have the same density for any other gas:

1) CH 4, SO 2, Cl 2

2) C 2 H 4, CH 4, F 2

3) CO, Cl 2 , H 2

4) CO, C 2 H 4, N 2

5) N 2, CH 4, H 2

22. How many moles of oxygen are formed from 3 moles of potassium chlorate during its complete thermal decomposition:

23. What amount (mol) of FeS 2 will be required to obtain 64 g of SO 2 according to the equation:

4 FeS 2 + 11O 2 \u003d 2Fe 2 O 3 + 8SO 2;

24. What mass (g) of calcium carbonate will be consumed to obtain 44.8 liters of carbon dioxide, measured at n.o.:

1) 200,0;

25. The equivalent of aluminum is:

1) aluminum atom;

2) 1/2 atom of aluminum;

3) 1/3 of an aluminum atom;

4) two aluminum atoms;

5) 1 mol of aluminum atoms.

26. The law of the constancy of the composition of substances is valid for substances:

1) with a molecular structure;

2) with a non-molecular structure;

3) with an ionic crystal lattice;

4) with an atomic crystal lattice;

5) for oxides and salts.

27. The equivalent of magnesium is:

1) magnesium atom;

2) 1/2 of a magnesium atom;

3) 1/3 of a magnesium atom;

4) two magnesium atoms;

5) 1 mol of magnesium atoms.

28. To neutralize 2.45 g of acid, 2.80 g of potassium hydroxide is consumed. Define

molar mass equivalent of acid:

1) 98 g/mol;

2) 36.5 g/mol;

3) 63 g/mol;

4) 40 g/mol;

g/mol.

Classification and nomenclature of inorganic compounds

1) Na 2 O; CaO; CO2

2)SO3; CuO; CrO3

3) Mn 2 O 7; CuO; CrO3

4)SO3; CO2; P2O5

5) Na 2 O; H2O; CO2

30. Only acid oxides series:

1) CO 2 ; SiO 2 ; MNO; CrO3

2) V 2 O 5 ; CrO 3 ; TeO 3 ; Mn2O7

3) CuO; SO2; NiO; MNO

4) CaO; P 2 O 3 ; Mn 2 O 7 ; Cr2O3

5) Na 2 O; H2O; CuO; Mn2O7

31. Cannot be used to neutralize sulfuric acid:

1) sodium bicarbonate;

2) magnesium oxide;

3) hydroxomagnesium chloride;

4) sodium hydrosulfate;

5) sodium oxide

32. To neutralize sulfuric acid, you can use:

2) Mg (OH) 2

33. Carbon dioxide is exhaled into solutions using a glass tube. The change will be in solution:

3) Ca(OH) 2 ;

34. By dissolving the corresponding oxide in water, you can get:

35. Under certain conditions, salt is formed in the case of:

1) N 2 O 5 + SO 3;

4) H 2 SO 4 + NH 3;

36. Can form acidic salts:

1) H 3 PO 4;

37. Can form basic salts:

2) Ba(OH) 2 ;

38. The mass of limestone required to obtain 112 kg of quicklime:

39. Reacts with water:

2) CaO;

40. Soluble in water:

3) Ba(OH) 2 ;

41. To obtain potassium phosphate, potassium hydrogen phosphate must be acted upon:

42. Acid oxide:

3) Mn 2 O 7;

43. Will directly interact in an aqueous solution:

2) Cu(OH) 2 and ZnO;

3) AI 2 O 3 and HCI;

4) Rb 2 O and NaOH;

5) CaO and K 2 O.

44. All acidic salts in the group:

1) KCI, CuOHCI, NaHSO 4 ;

2) KAI(SO 4) 2 , Na, Ca(HCO 3) 2 ;

3) CuS, NaHSO 3 , Cu(HS) 2 ;

4) NaHCO 3 , Na 2 HPO 4 , NaH 2 PO 4 ;

5) AIOHCI 2 , NaHCO 3 , NaCN.

45. Does not form acid salts:

4) HPO 3 ;

46. ​​Wrong title:

1) ferrous sulfate;

2) potassium sulfate;

3) iron (II) hydrochloride;

4) copper (I) chloride;

5) ammonium sulfate.

47. When water is split off from a monobasic acid weighing 16.0 g, formed by an element in the oxidation state +5, an oxide weighing 14.56 g will be obtained. The acid was taken:

1) nitrogen;

2) metavanadium;

3) orthophosphoric;

4) arsenic;

5) chlorine.

48. When calcining metal (III) weighing 10.8 g in air, a metal oxide weighing 20.4 g was obtained. For calcination, the following was taken:

2) aluminum AI;

3) iron Fe;

4) scandium Sc;

5) sodium Na.

49. Sign characterizing hydrochloric acid:

1) dibasic;

2) weak;

3) volatile;

4) oxygen-containing;

5) acid is an oxidizing agent.

50. Dibasic acid:

1) nitrogen;

2) salt;

3) acetic;

4) hydrocyanic;

Selenium.

51. Monobasic acid:

1) selenium;

2) phosphorous;

3) tellurium;

4) boric;

5) hydrocyanic.

52. Forms two types of acid salts:

1) sulfuric acid;

2) orthophosphoric acid;

3) metaphosphoric acid;

4) selenic acid;

5) sulfurous acid.

53. Does not form acid salts:

1) sulfuric acid;

2) phosphoric acid;

3) metaphosphoric acid;

4) selenic acid;

5) sulfurous acid.

54. Specify the cationic complex:

1) Na 3;

3) K3;

4) CI3;

5) K2.

55. Complex non-electrolyte:

1) Na 3;

2) ;

3) K3;

4) CI 3 ;

5) K2.

56. Anion complex:

1) potassium hexacyanoferrate (III);

2) tetrachlorodiammineplatinum (IV);

3) diamminesilver chloride;

57. Complex non-electrolyte:

1) potassium hexacyanoferrate (III);

2) tetrachlorodiammineplatinum (IV);

3) diamminesilver chloride;

4) tetraammine copper (II) sulfate;

5) hexaaquachromium (III) chloride.

58. Formula of hexaaquachromium (III) chloride:

1) Na 3;

2) CI

3) CI 2 ;

4) CI 3 ;

5) K 2 Cr 2 O 7 .

59. Formula of hexaaquachromium (II) chloride:

1) Na 3;

2) CI

3) CI 2 ; 3bl

4) CI 3 ;

5) K 2 Cr 2 O 7 .

60. Yellow blood salt refers to:

1) To aquacomplexes;

2) Hydrates;

3) To acid complexes;

4) To ammonia;

5) To chelates.

61. Copper sulfate refers to:

1) To aquacomplexes;

2) Hydrates;

3) To acid complexes;

4) To ammonia;

5) To chelates.

62. To obtain CaCO 3, add to a solution of Ca (HCO 3) 2:

1) Ca (OH) 2;

“The structure of matter and the periodic law of D.I. Mendeleev”

63. In the nucleus of the most common isotope of lead 207 Pb neutrons:

2) 125

64. The maximum number of electrons at the level n = 3:

65. On an energy level with n = 4 sublevels:

66. Number of energy levels in a tungsten atom:

67. In the nucleus of an osmium atom, protons:

68. The nucleus of a krypton atom contains:

R and 44n

69. The number of electrons in a chromium ion:

70. An ion, which has 18 electrons and 16 protons in its composition, has a nuclear charge:

71. The maximum number of electrons that can occupy a 3s orbital:

72. The electronic configuration 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6 4s 1 has an atom:

73. Incorrect designations of orbitals:

3) 1p, 2d

74. The particle has the same electronic configuration as the argon atom:

1) Ca 2+

75. Electron affinity is called:

1) the energy required to detach an electron from an unexcited atom;

2) the ability of an atom of a given element to pull electron density onto itself;

3) the transition of an electron to a higher energy level;

4) release of energy when an electron is attached to an atom or ion;

5) chemical bond energy.

76. As a result of a nuclear reaction an isotope is formed:

77. In the hydrogen atom, the absorption of a photon with a minimum energy requires the transition of an electron:

78. The corpuscular-wave nature of an electron is characterized by the equation:

79. For the valence electron of the potassium atom, the values ​​of quantum numbers (n, l, m l , m s):

1) 4, 1, -1, - :

2) 4, 1, +1, + : 3bm

3) 4, 0, 0, + :

4) 5, 0, +1, + :

80. The charge of the nucleus of an atom, in which the configuration of valence electrons in the ground state is …4d 2 5s 2:

81. The main quantum number n determines:

1) the shape of the electron cloud;

2) electron energy;

82. The orbital quantum number l determines:

1) the shape of the electron cloud;

2) electron energy;

3) orientation of the electron cloud in space;

4) rotation of an electron around its own axis;

5) hybridization of the electron cloud.

83. Magnetic quantum number m determines:

1) the shape of the electron cloud;

2) electron energy;

3) orientation of the electron cloud in space;

4) rotation of an electron around its own axis;

5) hybridization of the electron cloud.

84. The spin quantum number m s determines:

1) the shape of the electron cloud;

2) electron energy;

3) orientation of the electron cloud in space;

4) rotation of an electron around its own axis;

5) hybridization of the electron cloud.

85. During - decay, the nucleus of an atom of a radioactive element emits:

1) electron;

2) positron;

4) two protons;

5) two neutrons.

86. During - - decay, the nucleus of an atom of a radioactive element emits:

1) electron;

2) positron;

3) two protons and two neutrons combined into the nucleus of a helium atom;

4) two protons;

5) two neutrons.

87. During + - decay, the nucleus of an atom of a radioactive element emits:

1) electron;

2) positron;

3) two protons and two neutrons combined into the nucleus of a helium atom;

4) two protons;

5) two neutrons.

88. The atomic orbital has the smallest value of the sum (n + l):

89. The atomic orbital has the largest value of the sum (n + l)

90. The nitrogen atom will be more stable if three electrons are distributed on the 2p sublevel, one in each orbital. This matches the content:

2) the Pauli principle;

3) Gund rules;

4) the 1st rule of Klechkovsky;

5) the 2nd rule of Klechkovsky.

91. The twenty-first electron of the scandium atom is located on the 3d sublevel, and not on the 4p sublevel. This matches the content:

1) The principle of least energy;

2) the Pauli principle;

3) Gund rules;

4) the 1st rule of Klechkovsky;

5) the 2nd rule of Klechkovsky.

92. The nineteenth electron of the potassium atom is located on the 4s-sublevel, and not on the 3d-sublevel. This matches the content:

1) The principle of least energy;

2) the Pauli principle;

3) Gund rules;

4) 1st rule of Klechkovsky;

5) the 2nd rule of Klechkovsky.

93. The only electron of the hydrogen atom in the ground state is located on the first energy level. This matches the content:

1) The principle of least energy;

2) the Pauli principle;

3) Gund rules;

4) the 1st rule of Klechkovsky;

5) the 2nd rule of Klechkovsky.

94. The maximum number of electrons at the second energy level of atoms of elements

is 8. This matches the content:

1) The principle of least energy;

2) the Pauli principle;

3) Gund rules;

4) the 1st rule of Klechkovsky;

5) the 2nd rule of Klechkovsky.

95. One of the mechanisms for the formation of a covalent bond:

1) radical;

2) exchange;

3) molecular;

4) ionic;

5) chain.

96. An example of a non-polar molecule having a polar covalent bond would be:

4) CCl4

97. Non-polar molecule:

98. In the series of molecules LiF - BeF 2 - BF 3 - CF 4 - NF 3 - OF 2 - F 2:

1) the nature of the connection does not change;

2) the ionic nature of the bond is enhanced;

3) the covalent nature of the bond weakens;

4) the covalent nature of the bond is enhanced;

5) there is no correct answer.

99. A covalent bond by a donor-acceptor mechanism is formed in a molecule:

2) CCl 4 ;
3) NH 4 C1;
4) NH3;

100. In a nitrogen molecule are formed:

1) only -connections;

2) only -connections;

3) both - and -connections;

4) single bond;

5) double bond.

101. The methane molecule has the structure:

1) flat;

2) tetrahedral;

3) pyramidal;

4) square;

102. The formation of an ionic lattice is characteristic of:

1) cesium iodide;

2) graphite;

3) naphthalene;

4) diamond;

103. Which of the following substances is characterized by the formation of an atomic lattice:

1) ammonium nitrate;

2) diamond;

4) sodium chloride;

5) sodium.

104. Chemical elements are arranged in ascending order of electronegativity in

1) Si, P, Se, Br, Cl, O;

2) Si, P, Br, Se, Cl, O;

3) P, Si, Br, Se, Cl, O;

4) Br, P, Cl, Si, Se;

5) Si, P, Se, Cl, O, Br

105. The valence orbitals of the beryllium atom in the beryllium hydride molecule ... are hybridized

106. The beryllium hydride molecule has the structure:

1) square

flat

3) tetrahedral

5) spherical.

107. The valence orbitals of the boron atom in the BF 3 molecule are hybridized according to the type:

108. Which of the molecules is the most durable?

109. Which of the indicated molecules has the largest dipole?

110. What is the spatial configuration of a molecule during sp 2 hybridization of AO:

1) linear

2) tetrahedron

3) flat square

Flat trigonal

111. A molecule has an octahedral structure if the next hybridization occurs

3) d2sp3

112. The modern theory of the structure of the atom is based on the ideas:

1) classical mechanics;

2) quantum mechanics;

3) Bohr's theory;

4) electrodynamics;

5) chemical kinetics.

113. Of the following characteristics of the atoms of the elements, they periodically change:

1) the charge of the nucleus of an atom

2) relative atomic mass;

3) the number of energy levels in an atom;

4) the number of electrons in the outer energy level;

5) the total number of electrons.

114. Within a period, an increase in the ordinal number of an element is usually accompanied by:

1) a decrease in the atomic radius and an increase in the electronegativity of the atom;

2) an increase in the atomic radius and a decrease in the electronegativity of the atom;

3) a decrease in the atomic radius and a decrease in the electronegativity of the atom

4) an increase in the atomic radius and an increase in the electronegativity of the atom

5) decrease in electronegativity.

115. An atom of which of the elements most easily gives one electron:

1) sodium, atomic number 11;

2) magnesium, serial number 12;

3) aluminum, serial number 13;

4) silicon, serial number 14;

5) sulfur, serial number 16.

116. Atoms of elements of the IA group of the periodic system of elements have the same number:

1) electrons in the outer electronic level;

2) neutrons;

3) all electrons;

4) electron shells;

5) protons.

117. Which of the following elements is named after the country:

118. Which row includes only transitional elements:

1) elements 11, 14, 22, 42;

2) elements 13, 33, 54, 83;

3) elements 24, 39, 74, 80;

4) elements 19, 32, 51, 101;

5) elements 19, 20, 21, 22.

119. An atom of which of the elements of the VA group has the maximum radius:

2) phosphorus;

3) arsenic;

4) bismuth;

5) antimony.

120. What series of elements is presented in ascending order of atomic radius:

1) O, S, Se, Te;

3) Na, Mg, AI, Si;

4) J, Br, CI, F;

5) Sc, Te, V, Cr.

121. The metallic nature of the properties of elements in the series Mg - Ca - Sr - Ba

1) decreases;

2) increases;

3) does not change;

4) decreases and then increases;

5) increases and then decreases.

122. The main properties of the hydroxides of elements of the JA group as the serial number increases

1) decrease,

2) increase,

3) remain unchanged,

4) decrease and then increase,

5) increase and then decrease.

123. Simple substances of which elements have the greatest similarity of physical and chemical properties:

3) F, CI;

124. The existence of which of the following elements was predicted by D.I. Mendeleev:

3) Sc, Ga, Ge;

125. What distinguishes large periods from small ones:

1) the presence of alkali metals;

2) absence of inert gases;

3) the presence of d- and f-elements;

4) the presence of non-metals;

5) the presence of elements with metallic properties.

126. How to determine the period in which this element is located by the electronic formula of an element:

1) by the value of the principal quantum number of the external energy level;

2) by the number of valence electrons;

3) by the number of electrons in the external energy level;

4) by the number of sublevels in the external energy level;

5) by the value of the sublevel where the last valence electron is located.

127. Which element has the lowest ionization potential:

128. The chemical element of the third period forms the highest oxide of composition E 2 O 3 . How are electrons distributed in an atom of a given element?

1) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 1

2) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 1

3) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 1

4) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 6

5) 1s 2 2s 2 2p 3

129. What chemical element forms a base with the most pronounced properties

1) calcium

3) aluminum

Potassium

5) beryllium

130. A chemical element has the following distribution of electrons over the electron layers in an atom 2.8.6. What position does it occupy in the periodic system of chemical elements of D.I. Mendeleev:

1) 6 period 6 group

Period 6 group

3) 2 period 6 group

4) 3 period 2 group

5) 2 period 8 group

131. The quantum numbers of the last electron in an atom of an element are n = 5, l = 1, m = -1, m s = -. Where is this element located in the periodic table?

1) 5th period, first group

2) 5th period, main subgroup 4th group

3) 4th period, sixth group

period, sixth group main subgroup

5) 5th period, the sixth group is a secondary subgroup.

132. The formula of the highest oxide of the chemical element EO 2 . To which group of the main subgroup of the periodic system of chemical elements D.I. Mendeleev belongs to this element?

Fourth

5) sixth.

133. From the above list of elements - Li, Na, Ag, Au, Ca, Ba - alkali metals include:

1) all metals;

2) Li, Na;

3) Li, Na, Ag, Au;

134. In the series from Li to Fr:

1) metallic properties are enhanced;

2) metallic properties decrease;

3) the atomic radius decreases;

4) the bond of valence electrons with the nucleus is enhanced;

5) activity in relation to water decreases

135. The sequence of elements does not apply to metals:

3) B, As, Te;

136. With an increase in the ordinal number of an element, the acidic properties of oxides N 2 O 3 - P 2 O 3 - As 2 O 3

Sb 2 O 3 - Bi 2 O 3

1) are amplified;

2) weaken;

3) remain unchanged;

4) increase, then weaken;

5) weaken, then intensify.

137. An ammonia molecule has the form:

1) curved;

2) linear;

3) planar;

4) pyramidal;

138. In the series C-Si-Ge-Sn-Pb, non-metallic signs of elements:

1) increase;

2) weaken;

3) do not change;

4) increase and then weaken;

5) weaken and then increase.

139. Valence orbitals at the carbon atom in the CH 4 methane molecule can be described on the basis of

ideas about type hybridization (sp; sp 2; sp 3; d 2 sp 3; dsp 2).

In this case, the methane molecule has the form:

1) linear;

2) flat;

3) tetrahedral;

5) square.

140. The valence orbitals of a silicon atom in a SiH 4 silane molecule can be described on the basis of the concept of hybridization of the type (sp; sp 2; sp 3; d 2 sp 3; dsp 2).

Therefore, the silane molecule has the form:

1) linear;

2) flat;

3) tetrahedral;

5) square.

141. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that a nitrogen atom can form:

142. The nitrogen atom of an ammonia molecule with a hydrogen ion forms:

1) ionic bond;

2) covalent bond by exchange mechanism;

3) non-polar covalent bond;

4) covalent bond according to the donor-acceptor mechanism;

5) hydrogen bond.

143. Which statement is false:

4) An ionic bond has saturation;

144. Which statement is false:

1) A covalent bond has saturation;

2) The covalent bond has a direction;

3) Ionic bond has unsaturability;

4) Ionic bond has a direction;

5) The ionic bond is non-directional.

“Regularities of chemical processes and their energetics”

145. What changes in temperature T and pressure P contribute to the formation of CO by the reaction C (solid) + CO 2 (g.) 2CO (g.) -119.8 kJ:

1) increase in T and increase in P;

2) increase in T and decrease in P;

3) decrease in T and increase in P;

4) decrease in T and decrease in P;

5) R increase.

146. How many times will the rate of a chemical reaction increase with an increase in temperature by 30 0 if the temperature coefficient of the rate is 2?

147. By how many degrees should the temperature be lowered so that the reaction rate decreases by 27 times if the temperature coefficient of the rate is 3?

148. How many times will the reaction rate X + 2Y \u003d Z increase with increasing concentration

Y 3 times?

149. How many times will the rate of the forward reaction increase compared to the rate of the reverse reaction in the 2NO + O 2 2NO 2 system with a 2-fold increase in pressure?

150. Specify the correct expression for the speed of the system: 2Cr+3Cl 2 = 2CrCl 3

5) v=k[A][C].

154. A catalyst speeds up a chemical reaction due to:

1) decrease in activation energy;

2) increase in activation energy;

3) decrease in the heat of reaction;

4) increase in concentration;

5) all answers are wrong.

155. The equilibrium of the reaction Fe 3 O 4 + 4CO "3Fe + 4CO 2 -43.7 kJ shifts to the left:

1) when the temperature drops;

2) when the temperature rises;

3) with increasing pressure;

4) with an increase in the concentration of the starting substances;

5) when adding a catalyst.

156. How many times will the rate of a chemical reaction increase with an increase in temperature by 30 0 if the temperature coefficient of the rate is 3?

157. By how many degrees should the temperature be raised so that the reaction rate increases by 27 times if the temperature coefficient of the rate is 3?

158. How many times does the rate of the reaction X + 2Y = Z increase with an increase in the concentration of X by 3 times?

159. How many times will the rate of the forward reaction increase compared to the rate of the reverse reaction in the 2CO + O 2 2CO 2 system with a 2-fold increase in pressure?

160. How will the rate of the gas reaction 2NO 2 \u003d N 2 O 4 increase with an increase in the concentration of NO 2 by 5 times?

161. How many times will the rate of the gas reaction 2NO + O 2 \u003d 2NO 2 decrease when the mixture of reacting gases is diluted 3 times?

162. By how many degrees should the temperature be lowered so that the reaction rate decreases by 81 times at a temperature coefficient of 3?

163. How many times will the reaction rate 2NO + O 2 \u003d 2NO 2 increase when the pressure in the system is increased by 4 times?

164. How many times will the rate of the forward reaction increase compared to the rate of the reverse reaction in the 2NO + O 2 2NO 2 system with an increase in pressure in the system by 5 times?

165. How will the reaction rate 2SO 2,g + O 2,g 2SO 3,g change with increasing concentration

1) will increase by 3 times;

2) increase by 9 times;

3) decrease by 3 times;

4) decrease by 9 times;

5) will not change.

166. How will the rate of the reaction 2O 3,g 3O 2,g change when the pressure is doubled?

1) will decrease by 2 times;

2) decrease by 8 times;

3) will increase by 4 times;

4) decrease by 4 times;

5) will increase by 2 times.

167. How will the reaction rate 2NO g + O 2,g 2NO 2,g change while reducing

concentrations of NO and O 2 by 2 times?

1) will increase by 2 times;

2) will decrease by 2 times;

3) will increase by 24 times;

4) decrease by 24 times;

Decrease by 8 times.

168. How will the rate of the direct reaction H 2 O, g H 2, g + O 2, g change if the pressure in the system increases 4 times?

1) will increase by 2 times;

2) will decrease by 2 times;

3) will not change;

4) will increase by 4 times;

5) will decrease by 4 times.

169. The law of mass action was discovered:

1) M.V. Lomonosov

2) G.I. Hess

3) J.W. Gibbs

K. Guldberg and P. Waage

5) Van't Hoff

170. Which of the following systems is homogeneous

Sodium chloride solution

2) ice water

3) saturated solution with a precipitate

4) coal and sulfur in the air

5) a mixture of gasoline and water

171. The value of the rate constant of a chemical reaction does not depend

1) on the nature of the reacting substances

2) on temperature

3) from the presence of catalysts

From the concentration of substances

5) no factors

172. Activation energy is

1) the energy required to detach an electron from an atom

2) the excess energy of which molecules per 1 mole must have in order for their collision to lead to the formation of a new substance

3) ionization potential

4) the energy that is released as a result of the reaction

5) the energy that is released when an electron is attached to an atom.

173. The increase in the reaction rate with increasing temperature is usually characterized by:

1) the rate constant of a chemical reaction

2) chemical equilibrium constant